QUOTE (nomorebear @ Jan 22 2008, 12:38 PM)

I'm probably going to regret this but here goes,
I think René Descartes provided the evidence that we are concious beings with his most famous statement "I think, therefore I am".
Initially, Descartes arrives at only a single principle: thought exists. Thought cannot be separated from me, therefore, I exist (Discourse on the Method and Principles of Philosophy). Most famously, this is known as cogito ergo sum (Latin: "I think, therefore I am"), or more aptly, "Dubito, ergo cogito, ergo sum" (Latin: "I doubt, therefore I think, therefore I am"). Therefore, Descartes concluded, if he doubted, then something or someone must be doing the doubting, therefore the very fact that he doubted proved his existence.
Descartes concludes that he can be certain that he exists because he thinks. But in what form? He perceives his body through the use of the senses; however, these have previously been proven unreliable. So Descartes concludes that the only indubitable knowledge is that he is a thinking thing. Thinking is his essence as it is the only thing about him that cannot be doubted. Descartes defines "thought" (cogitatio) as "what happens in me such that I am immediately conscious of it, insofar as I am conscious of it". Thinking is thus every activity of a person of which he is immediately conscious.
To further demonstrate the limitations of the senses, Descartes proceeds with what is known as the Wax Argument. He considers a piece of wax: his senses inform him that it has certain characteristics, such as shape, texture, size, color, smell, and so forth. When he brings the wax towards a flame, these characteristics change completely. However, it seems that it is still the same thing: it is still a piece of wax, even though the data of the senses inform him that all of its characteristics are different. Therefore, in order to properly grasp the nature of the wax, he cannot use the senses: he must use his mind. Descartes concludes:
“Thus what I thought I had seen with my eyes, I actually grasped solely with the faculty of judgment, which is in my mind."
That answers your question but, in my opinion, does not prove or disprove the the question if there is or isn't a god.
I don't think anyone, athiest or not, has a logical position for what they believe in the eyes of someone who has the opposite belief. People choose to believe what they CHOOSE to to believe. Is there 100% concrete evidence either way that a god does or doesn't exist?
Why the hell did I get involved in this conversation?
I'm glad you did get involved! You make a correct statement that Descartes' principle does not prove nor disprove the question whether or not there is a god, yet neither does it prove anything beyond the fact that Descartes perceived
himself as a conscious "thing". It still does not necessarily follow that all other people around him are self-conscious beings. There is no way to
prove that using the scientific method, yet we still believe that others are self-conscious as we perceive ourselves as self-conscious because of certain patterns of
evidence, circumstantial or otherwise, that we observe and form an opinion about. The
scope of that consciousness will vary greatly, from person to person. Some people are self-conscious only, some are self-conscious
and others-conscious, and some are self-conscious, others-conscious
and God-conscious.
Where does this thing called self-consciousness originate from? What is mind? Is it something that is purely generated from the physical brain itself? If so, how can a physical thing (brain) bring about the non-physical (thought, consciousness), which, in turn, regulates all of human society? Or could the brain merely act as a receiver and processor (e.g. in the physical world, through the five senses gathering, organizing and processing information; yet on a higher frequency recognizing the higher laws of non-material Logic and Reason, as well as abstract thought; then on an even higher frequency, the perception of thought and insight that transcends Logic and Reason itself)?
It was recognized by Descartes that there are things that transcend the limitations of the scientific method(i.e. inductions made based on observations of the physical world made through the five senses), as useful as it is in discerning and grasping the physical world around us, but the scientific method itself is founded on something that can't be proven using the scientific method - thought, logic and reason. How could anyone, then, assume that the scientific method would ever be a valid tool in trying to access whether God exists or not?
We assume and respect the truth (not fact, because it can't be
proven) that others outside the confines of ourselves are conscious beings. However, we can only assess the scope of consciousness within ourselves (I think, therefore I am, and I perceive x,y and z), and cannot assume the scope of consciousness within others. The best we can do is to opine "I think, therefore I am. I observe the same patterns in you, therefore I assume you think, too, and therefore you are". We cannot reasonably and truthfully state, however, that "I think, therefore I am and am conscious of x, y and z, which can be scientifically proven. You say you are conscious of A as well as x,y and z. I'm not conscious of A, so therefore I think: you are delusional."
The materialist states "there is no evidence of God's existence". Really what the materialist means is that there is no
convincing evidence of God, which would, then 1) render the whole statement an
opinion only and, 2) attempt to define A in the context of x, y and z. It is not logical to do so. If, however, the materialist means "there is no evidence of the existence of God, therefore God does not exist.", then that person is asserting that he/she knows all things. No one person can know all things, so the statement qualifies, at best, as an assertion
only with absolutely no true logical premise. That puts the person squarely in the NON-Theist camp, because "belief" is no longer involved - they KNOW. ATHEISTs define themselves as "having no belief in any god", which - based on the statement alone - , in no way, asserts that there is no god; merely that they don't
believe in a god.
If the statement really does mean "there is no convincing evidence of God's existence" then, logically speaking, it leaves the door open to the
possibility, which would place the materialist in the
Agnostic camp. The question is, what would constitute acceptable and convincing "evidence". THAT question is a very personal and subjective one, and will be answered differently by each of us. Or is there such a thing as an
objective standard? Is an absolute and objective standard necessary?
The Theist holds that there is one and it is both absolute and objective.